Due Date Calendar for June’2021

A) Due dates for Compliance under Income Tax

  • 7 June 2021 – Due date for deposit of Tax deducted/collected for the month of May, 2021. However, all sum deducted/collected by an office of the government shall be paid to the credit of the Central Government on the same day where tax is paid without production of an Income-tax Challan
  • 14 June 2021 – Due date for issue of TDS Certificate for tax deducted under section 194-IA in the month of April, 2021
  • 14 June 2021 – Due date for issue of TDS Certificate for tax deducted under Section 194-IB in the month of April, 2021
  • 14 June 2021 – Due date for issue of TDS Certificate for tax deducted under Section 194M in the month of April, 2021
  • 15 June 2021 – Due date for furnishing of Form 24G by an office of the Government where TDS/TCS for the month of May, 2021 has been paid without the production of a challanThe due date for furnishing of Form 24G for month of May, 2021 has been extended from June 15, 2021 to June 30, 2021 vide Circular no. 9/2021, dated 20-05-2021
  • 15 June 2021 – Quarterly TDS certificates (in respect of tax deducted for payments other than salary) for the quarter ending March 31, 2021
  • 15 June 2021 – First instalment of advance tax for the assessment year 2022-23
  • 15 June 2021 – Certificate of tax deducted at source to employees in respect of salary paid and tax deducted during Financial Year 2020-21The due date for issue of certificate of TDS in respect tax deducted from the salary paid during the Financial Year 2020-21 has been extended from June 15, 2021 to July 15, 2021 vide Circular no. 9/2021, dated 20-05-2021
  • 15 June 2021 – Due date for furnishing statement in Form no. 3BB by a stock exchange in respect of transactions in which client codes been modified after registering in the system for the month of May, 2021
  • 15 June 2021 – Furnishing of statement (in Form No. 64D) of income paid or credited by an investment fund to its unit holder for the Previous year 2020-21The due date for furnishing of statement in Form no. 64D has been extended from June 15, 2021 to June 30, 2021 vide Circular no. 9/2021, dated 20-05-2021
  • 29 June 2021 – Due date for e-filing of a statement (in Form No. 3CEK) by an eligible investment fund under section 9A in respect of its activities in financial year 2020-21
  • 30 June 2021 – Due date for furnishing of challan-cum-statement in respect of tax deducted under section 194-IA in the month of May, 2021
  • 30 June 2021 – Due date for furnishing of challan-cum-statement in respect of tax deducted under Section 194-IB in the month of May, 2021
  • 30 June 2021 – Due date for furnishing of challan-cum-statement in respect of tax deducted under Section 194M in the month of May, 2021
  • 30 June 2021 – Return in respect of securities transaction tax for the financial year 2020-21
  • 30 June 2021 – Quarterly return of non-deduction of tax at source by a banking company from interest on time deposit in respect of the quarter ending March 31, 2021
  • 30 June 2021 – Statement to be furnished (in Form No. 64C) by Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) to units holders in respect of income distributed during the previous year 2020-21The due date for furnishing of statement in Form no. 64C has been extended from June 30, 2021 to July 15, 2021 vide Circular no. 9/2021, dated 20-05-2021
  • 30 June 2021 – Report by an approved institution/public sector company under Section 35AC(4)/(5) for the year ending March 31, 2021
  • 30 June 2021 – Due date for furnishing of statement of income distributed by business trust to its unit holders during the financial year 2020-21. This statement is required to be furnished to the unit holders in form No. 64B
  • 30 June 2021 – Due date for linking of Aadhaar number with PAN. The due date for linking Aadhaar number with PAN has been extended from March 31, 2021 to June 30, 2021 vide Notification S.O. 1432(E), dated 31-03-2021
  • 30 June 2021 – Payment of tax under the Direct Tax Vivad se Vishwas Act, 2020 without additional charge. The due date for payment of tax under the Direct Tax Vivad se Vishwas Act, 2020 without additional charge has been extended to June 30, 2021 vide Notification S.O. 1704 (E), dated 27-04-2021
  • 30 June 2021 – Due date for furnishing of Form 24G by an office of the Government where TDS/TCS for the month of May, 2021 has been paid without the production of a challanThe due date for furnishing of Form 24G for month of May, 2021 has been extended from June 15, 2021 to June 30, 2021 vide Circular no. 9/2021, dated 20-05-2021
  • 30 June 2021 – Quarterly statement of TDS deposited for the quarter ending March 31, 2021The due date for furnishing of quarterly statement of TDS has been extended from May 31, 2021 to June 30, 2021 vide Circular no. 9/2021, dated 20-05-2021
  • 30 June 2021 – Due date for furnishing of statement of financial transaction (in Form No. 61A) as required to be furnished under sub-section (1) of section 285BA of the Act respect for financial year 2020-21The due date for furnishing statement of financial transaction for financial year 2020-21 has been extended from May 31, 2021 to June 30, 2021 vide Circular no. 9/2021, dated 20-05-2021
  • 30 June 2021 – Due date for e-filing of annual statement of reportable accounts as required to be furnished under section 285BA(1)(k) (in Form No. 61B) for calendar year 2020 by reporting financial institutionsThe due date for furnishing statement of reportable accounts for calendar year 2020 has been extended from May 31, 2021 to June 30, 2021 vide Circular no. 9/2021, dated 20-05-2021
  • 30 June 2021 – Return of tax deduction from contributions paid by the trustees of an approved superannuation fund. The due date for furnishing return of tax deduction has been extended from May 31, 2021 to June 30, 2021 vide Circular no. 9/2021, dated 20-05-2021
  • 30 June 2021 – Furnishing of statement (in Form No. 64D) of income paid or credited by an investment fund to its unit holder for the Previous year 2020-21The due date for furnishing of statement in Form no. 64D has been extended from June 15, 2021 to June 30, 2021 vide Circular no. 9/2021, dated 20-05-2021

B) Due dates for Compliance under Companies Act

  • DPT-3 Filing – FY 2020-21 – Companies who have taken outstanding loans

C) Due dates for Compliance under GST

SR NOForm to be filedFor the PeriodDue dateWho should file?
1GSTR 7May 202110.06.2021GSTR 7 is a return to be filed by the persons who is required to deduct TDS (Tax deducted at source)  under GST
2GSTR 8May 202110.06.2021GSTR-8 is a return to be filed by the e-commerce operators who are required to deduct TCS (Tax collected at source) under GST
3GSTR 1May 202111.06.2021Taxpayers having an aggregate turnover of more than Rs. 1.50 Crores or opted to file Monthly Return
4GSTR 1 IFF (QRMP)May 202111.06.2021GST return for the taxpayers who opted for QRMP scheme (Optional)
5GSTR 6May 202113.06.2021Input Service Distributors
6GSTR 5 & 5AMay 202120.06.2021Non-Resident Taxpayers and ODIAR services provider
7GSTR 3BMay 202120.06.2021The due date for GSTR-3B having an Annual Turnover of more than 5 Crores
8GST ChallanFor all Quarterly filers25.06.2021GST Challan Payment if no sufficient ITC for April (for all Quarterly Filers)

D) Due dates Compliances under ESI, PF and other labour Laws

Due Date  Form  Applicable Period  Description

Due dateFormApplicable periodDescription
15thJune, 2021ESI ChallanApril, 2021ESI contribution for the month of April, 2021
15thJune, 2021ECRMay, 2021Due dates of Payment of EPF contribution
25thJune, 2021Form-5/12A/10May, 2021Filling of PF return
Within 15 Days of commencement/ completion of contract workForm VI-BReturn/Notice within 15 days of commencement/ completion of each contract by the Principal employerContract Labour (Regulation & Abolition) Act, 1970
Within 15 Days of commencement/ completion of contract workForm VI-ANotice of commencement/ completion of contract work by the Contractor within 15 daysContract Labour (Regulation & Abolition) Act, 1970
Within 30 Days of applicability of the Act & any changeForm A or BNotice of applicability of the Act & any changePayment of Gratuity Rule

What is Professional Tax? View Tax Slab and Applicability

What is Professional Tax?

Professional tax is a tax that a state government levies on any individual who earns income through any medium. Unlike the name suggests, it is not just for professionals but for all individuals.

Who is applicable for Professional Tax?

  • Business including freelancers
  • Professionals including CA, CS, Doctors
  • Employees

It is applicable once the person begins his profession or business within 30 days of starting the profession. If the company has its presence in different places, it is required to register for each such place.

Exemption from Professional Tax:-

Following individuals are exempted from paying this tax:

  • Parents whose children have a permanent disability or mental disability.
  • Members of the forces as defined in the Air Force Act, 1950, Army Act, 1950, and the Navy Act, 1957. Also includes members of auxiliary forces and serving in the state.
  • Workers in the textile industry (Badli workers).
  • Individuals who have a permanent physical disability (including blindness).
  • Women as an agent under the Director of Small Savings or Mahila Pradhan Kshetriya Bachat Yojana.
  • Also, individuals, above the age of 65 years.

Maximum Tax Amount

A maximum of Rs. 2,500 can be levied on any person per financial year.

Profession Tax Is Deductible Under Section 16 (iii) Of The Income Tax Act
According to Section 16 (iii) of the Income Tax Act 1961, the professional tax paid by an employee is allowed as a deduction from his/her gross salary income.

Professional Tax Rates of Key States of India

As this tax is a state subject, the rate varies from one state to another. While some states might charge it as a percentage value, other states tend to charge it as a fixed amount based on income slabs. The following are the rates in key states in India: 

Professional Tax Slabs in Andhra Pradesh

Income per MonthTax Rate/Tax Amount (p.m.)
Less than ₹15,000 Nil
₹15,000 to less than ₹20,000₹150
₹20,000 and above₹200

Professional Tax Slabs in Gujarat

Income per MonthTax Rate/Tax Amount (p.m.)
Up to ₹5999Nil
₹6,000 to ₹8,999₹80
₹9,000 and ₹11,999₹150
₹12,000 and above₹200

Professional Tax Slabs in Karnataka

Income per MonthTax Rate/Tax Amount (p.m.)
up to ₹15,000 Nil
₹15,001 and above₹200

Professional Tax Slabs in Maharashtra

Income per MonthTax Rate/Tax Amount (p.m.)
Up to ₹7,500Nil(for male)
Up to ₹10,000Nil(for female)
₹7,500 to ₹10,000₹175(for male)
₹10,000 and above₹200 for 11 months + ₹300 for 12th month

Professional Tax Slabs for Telangana

Income per MonthTax Rate/Tax Amount (p.m.)
Up to ₹15,000Nil
₹15,001 to ₹20,000₹150
₹20,001 onwards₹200
Up to 5 years (For professionals such as legal practitioners, CA, architects, etc.) Nil
Over 5 years (For professionals such as legal practitioners, CA, architects, etc.) ₹ 2,500 (per annum)

Professional Tax Slabs in West Bengal

Income per Month Tax Rate/Tax Amount (p.m.)
Up to ₹10,000Nil
₹10,001 to ₹ 15,000 ₹ 110
₹ 15,001 to ₹ 25,000 ₹ 130
₹ 25,001 to ₹ 40,000 ₹ 150
₹ 40,001 and above ₹ 200

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the procedure to pay professional tax? Is any return to be filed?

This is a State-specific query. However, in general, a professional tax may be paid either online/offline. Further, depending on the State’s requirement, the returns also need to be filed at specified intervals.

Is it mandatory to pay professional tax?

Yes, if you are a salaried individual, it is mandatory to pay professional tax.

Is Professional tax applicable in Union territories?

As Union Territories are small regions of the country, they tend to generate lower revenue than states. Hence, professional tax is not applicable for employees working in a Union Territory.

Confused about your income tax? Check out our article on how you can Solve your income tax puzzle with us.

What are Form 15CA and 15CB? How to fill and who are applicable.

Any payment made to a non-resident or a foreign company is subject to various rules and regulations.

As per provisions of Section 195 of Income-tax Act,1961 any person responsible for paying money to a non-resident including a foreign company shall deduct income tax for payment made to a non-resident.

Making payments outside India requires one to submit Form 15CA and 15CB.

What are Form 15CA and 15CB?

The basic purpose of filling the forms is to collect the taxes at an earlier stage when the remittance is made as it becomes difficult to collect it from a non-resident at a later stage.

Thus, to monitor and check the effectiveness of such transaction e-filing of forms 15CA and 15CB were introduced.

Form 15CA:

Form 15CA is a declaration made by the person remitting the money wherein he states that he has deducted the tax from any payments so made to the non-resident.

Form 15CB:

Form 15CB is a certificate issued by a Chartered Accountant ensuring that the provisions of the Income Tax Act have been complied with in respect of tax deductions while making the payments.

What does Form 15CB include?

  • Details and nature of payment made to a Non-Resident.
  • Compliance with Section 195 of the Income Tax Act.
  • Rate of TDS deducted.

Applicability of Form 15CA and Form 15CB

Form 15CA is a declaration by any person intending to make remittance:

  • To non-resident or to a foreign company (irrespective of whether remittance is subject to tax)
  • By remitter who can be resident /non-resident/ domestic company/foreign company
  • When income accrues/ arises/ received or deemed to accrue/ arise/ received in India (Section 5 of Income Tax Act).

Form 15CB is a certificate required to be filed by the Chartered Accountant when the remittance is made.

  • To a non-resident or foreign company is taxable and
  • The payment exceeds Rs. 5,00,000/-; and
  • When order/certificate has not been received from Assessing Officer (AO).

When is Form 15CA not required?

  • When the remitter makes remittance as per the specified list of payments in Rule 37BB of Income Tax Rules.
  • Not applicable to an individual who does not require RBI approval as per Section 5 of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.

When is Form 15CB not required?

  • When the remittance is not taxable.
  • If the income is taxable in the country of residence of the remittee.
  • When the aggregate of remittances during the financial year does not exceed Rs. 5,00,000.

Various Parts of Form 15CA

Part A – Section A

It is filled in by the remitter when the payment or the total sum of the payment extended by the remitter to the NRI recipient during a particular Financial Year is Rs. 5 Lakhs or less.

Part B – Section B

It is in the role when such payments are more than Rs. 5 Lakhs. Information is entered by the filer in Section B after acquiring a certificate from the Assessing Officer (valid under section 197) or the order from the Assessing Officer (valid under sub-section (2) or sub-section (3) of section 195).

Part C

If such payments made during a particular FY exceed Rs. 5 Lakhs, the related information has to be entered in Section C of Form 15CA after acquiring the Tax Determination Certificate or Form 15CB from authorized CA (valid under sub-section (2) of section 288).

Part D

Payments made by the remitter during a particular FY which is not referred to in sub-section 37BB or in other words are not taxable under law, the information related to such payments is to be entered in Section D of Form 15CA.

Procedure for filing forms

Form 15CA is available online on the government’s official income tax e-filing portal. The form is electronically submitted to concerned authorities.

Here is the step-wise guidance to file Form 15CA:

Step 1: Visit the official E-filing ‘ portal at https://incometaxindiaefiling.gov.in/ and log in by using the valid credentials.

Step 2– Select ” E-file” from the menu placed at the top of the page and then click on Income Tax Forms. 

Step 3– The PAN details of the taxpayer are pre-filled. Choose “Form 15CA” from the drop-down list named “Form Name”. 

Step 4– Select your required section from “Select relevant part from the down “

Step 5– Fill the selected part of Form 15CA and click on the “submit” button.

Step 6– Fill in the details in the verification portion of the respective part of Form 15CA.

Please Note–  Form 15CB needs to be uploaded before you fill Part C of Form 15CA as the acknowledgment number of Form 15CB is required while filing the respective part. 

Once the form is successfully filled, a notification “successfully submitted” will pop up on the screen along with a confirmation email sent to the registered email account.

Chartered Accountants can fill in Form 15CB through the below-mentioned procedure:

Step 1: Visit http://incometaxindiaefiling.gov.in/ and click on the “Downloads” tab.

Step 2: Select the required “Forms (Other than ITR)” and then convert them either in Excel

Step 3: Create the XML file using your chosen utility. 

Step 4: log in to the account on the e-filing portal and click on the “e-File” tab. Select “Upload Form” from the drop-down menu. 

Step 5: Fill in the PAN/TAN details of the assessee, PAN of C.A., select “Form Name” as “15CB“, and “Filing Type” as “Original”. Press “submit”

As soon as you press the submit button you will receive a success notification along with an email sent to your registered email ID.

Form 15 CA can be accessed at https://www.incometaxindia.gov.in/forms/income-tax%20rules/103120000000007842.pdf

Learn more about the Penalty for non-filing of Form 15CA & Form 15CB here.

All about Form DPT-3: Return of Deposits

1. What is the Return of deposit (Form DPT-3)?

Any receipt of money by way of deposit or loan or in any other form, by a company other than receipt of money not considered as deposit as per rule 2 (1) (c) of the Companies (Acceptance of Deposit) Rules, 2014 is required to disclose to the Registrar of Companies by filing Form DPT-3 (Return of deposit).

2. What is Exempted Deposit and is it required to be disclosed by filing Form DPT-3?

Exempted Deposit is the particulars of transactions by a company started in rule 2 (1) (c) of the Companies (Acceptance of Deposit) Rules, 2014, and these transactions are also required to be disclosed by filing Form DPT-3.

3. Who is required to file Form DPT-3?

Except for the Government companies, all other companies which include all private limited companies, OPC, limited companies, or Section 8 Company have to mandatorily file this form.

4. What is the due date of filing form DPT-3?

Every company to which Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules, 2014 apply, shall on or before the 30th day of June, of every year, file with the Registrar, a return in Form DPT-3 along with the fee as provided in Companies (Registration Offices and Fees) Rules, 2014 and furnish the information contained therein as on the 31st day of March of that year duly audited by the auditor of the company.

5. While filing Form DPT-3, Net Worth of which financial year is to be considered and whether it should be audited or unaudited?

Net Worth as per the latest audited balance sheet preceding the date of the return shall be considered while filing Form DPT-3. For example, if DPT-3 form is to be filed for F.Y. 2020-21 then the due date for filing the same shall be on or before 30th June 2021 and Net worth to be considered shall be as of 31.03.2021 (Audited). If audited Net Worth as of 31.03.2021 is not available then Net worth as of 31.03.2020 shall be taken into account.

6. Is it mandatory to attach Auditor’s Certificate in Form DPT-3?

If the Company is filing a return for receipt of money considered as deposits then it is mandatory to attach Auditor’s Certificate. No Certificate is required if the return is being filed for receipt of money not considered as deposits i.e. Exempted deposits.

7. Is it mandatory for the company to state Audited figures in Form DPT-3?

If Company is filing a form for receipt of money which is considered as deposits: It is mandatory for the Company to state audited figures.

If Company is filing a form for receipt of money which are not considered as deposits: It is not mandatory for the Company to state audited figures.

8. Who is exempt from filing Form DPT-3?

  • Government Company
  • Banking company
  • Non-Banking Financial Company
  • A housing finance company registered with National Housing Bank
  • Any other company as notified under proviso to subsection (1) to section 73 of the Act

9. What are the fees of filing Form DPT-3?

Fees shall be payable as per the Companies (Registration Offices and Fees) Rules.

10. What if the Company does not file the Form DPT-3 within the due time period?

The company shall file the Form DPT-3 with additional fees applicable as per Companies (The Registration Offices and Fees) Rules, 2014.

11. What are the Consequences of non-filing?

If the company does not adhere to the requirements of DPT-3 and keeps accepting deposits then it will face the following consequences:

Under Section 73:
A penalty of a minimum of 1 crore or twice the number of deposits whichever is lower, may extend to Rs.10 crore.
For every officer who is in default imprisonment up to 7 years and with a fine not less than Rs.25 lakhs which may extend to Rs.2 crores.

Under Rule 21:
On the company and every officer in default a fine may extend up to Rs.5,000, and where the contravention is a continuing one, a fine of Rs.500 for every day since the default.

Disclaimer: The contents of this article are for information purposes only and do not constitute advice or a legal opinion and are the personal views of the author. It is based upon relevant law and/or facts available at that point in time and prepared with due accuracy & reliability. Readers are requested to check and refer to relevant provisions of the statute, latest judicial pronouncements, circulars, clarifications, etc before acting on the basis of the above write-up.  The possibility of other views on the subject matter cannot be ruled out. By the use of the said information, you agree that Author/ITATOrders is not responsible or liable in any manner for the authenticity, accuracy, completeness, errors, or any kind of omissions in this piece of information for any action taken thereof. This is not any kind of advertisement or solicitation of work by a professional.

Relaxation In Applicability of Accounting Standards Commencing From April 1, 2020.

Announcement by The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India

Criteria for classification of Non-company entities for applicability of Accounting Standards. The Council, at its 400th meeting, held in March, 2021, considered the matter relating to applicability of Accounting Standards issued by The Institute of Chartered Accountants Of India (ICAI), to Non-company entities (Enterprises). The scheme for applicability of Accounting Standards to Non-company entities shall come into effect in respect of accounting periods commencing on or after April 1, 2020.

1. For the purpose of applicability of Accounting Standards, Non-company entities are classified into four categories, viz., Level I, Level II, Level III and Level IV.

Level I entities are large size entities, Level II entities are medium size entities, Level III entities are small size entities and Level IV entities are micro entities. Level IV, Level III and Level II entities are referred to as Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs). The criteria for classification of Non-company entities into different levels are given in Annexure 1.

The terms ‘Small and Medium Enterprise’ and ‘SME’ used in Accounting Standards shall be read as entities and ‘MSME’ respectively.

2. Level I entities are required to comply in full with all the Accounting Standards.

3. Certain exemptions/relaxations have been provided to Level II, Level III and Level IV Non-company entities. Applicability of Accounting Standards and exemptions/relaxations to such entities are given in Annexure 2.

4. This Announcement supersedes the earlier Announcement of the ICAI on ‘Harmonisation of various differences between the Accounting Standards issued by the ICAI and the Accounting Standards notified by the Central Government’ issued in February 2008, to the extent it prescribes the criteria for classification of Non-company entities (Non-corporate entities) and applicability of Accounting Standards to non-company entities.

5. This Announcement is not relevant for Non-company entities who may be required to follow Ind AS as per relevant regulatory requirements applicable to such entities.

6. The changes arising from this Announcement will be incorporated in the Accounting Standards while publishing the updated Compendium of Accounting Standards.

ANNEXURE 1

Criteria for classification of Non-company Entities as decided by ICAI

Level I Entities

 (i) Entities whose securities are listed or are in the process of listing on any stock exchange, whether in India or outside India.

(ii) Banks (including co-operative banks), financial institutions or entities carrying on insurance business.

(iii) All entities engaged in commercial, industrial or business activities, whose turnover (excluding other income) exceeds rupees two-fifty crore in the immediately preceding accounting year.

(iv) All entities engaged in commercial, industrial or business activities having borrowings (including public deposits) in excess of rupees fifty crore at any time during the immediately preceding accounting year.

(v) Holding and subsidiary entities of any one of the above.

Level II Entities

 (i) All entities engaged in commercial, industrial or business activities, whose turnover (excluding other income) exceeds rupees fifty crore but does not exceed rupees two-fifty crore in the immediately preceding accounting year.

(ii) All entities engaged in commercial, industrial or business activities having borrowings (including public deposits) in excess of rupees ten crore but not in excess of rupees fifty crore at any time during the immediately preceding accounting year.

(iii) Holding and subsidiary entities of any one of the above.

Level III Entities

Non-company entities which are not covered under Level I and Level II but fall in any one or more of the following categories are classified as Level III entities:

(i) All entities engaged in commercial, industrial or business activities, whose turnover (excluding other income) exceeds rupees ten crore but does not exceed rupees fifty crore in the immediately preceding accounting year.

(ii) All entities engaged in commercial, industrial or business activities having borrowings (including public deposits) in excess of rupees two crore but does not exceed rupees ten crore at any time during the immediately preceding accounting year.

(iii) Holding and subsidiary entities of any one of the above.

Level IV Entities

Non-company entities which are not covered under Level I, Level II and Level III are considered as Level IV entities.

Additional requirements

(1) An MSME which avails the exemptions or relaxations given to it shall disclose (by way of a note to its financial statements) the fact that it is an MSME, the Level of MSME and that it has complied with the Accounting Standards insofar as they are applicable to entities falling in Level II or Level III or Level IV, as the case may be.

(2) Where an entity, being covered in Level II or Level III or Level IV, had qualified for any exemption or relaxation previously but no longer qualifies for the relevant exemption or relaxation in the current accounting period, the relevant standards or requirements become applicable from the current period and the figures for the corresponding period of the previous accounting period need not be revised merely by reason of its having ceased to be covered in Level II or Level III or Level IV, as the case may be. The fact that the entity was covered in Level II or Level III or Level IV, as the case may be, in the previous period and it had availed of the exemptions or relaxations available to that Level of entities shall be disclosed in the notes to the financial statements. The fact that previous period figures have not been revised shall also be disclosed in the notes to the financial statements.

(3) Where an entity has been covered in Level I and subsequently, ceases to be so covered and gets covered in Level II or Level III or Level IV, the entity will not qualify for exemption/relaxation available to that Level, until the entity ceases to be covered in Level I for two consecutive years. Similar is the case in respect of an entity, which has been covered in Level II or Level III and subsequently, gets covered under Level III or Level IV.

(4) If an entity covered in Level II or Level III or Level IV opts not to avail of the exemptions or relaxations available to that Level of entities in respect of any but not all of the Accounting Standards, it shall disclose the Standard(s) in respect of which it has availed the exemption or relaxation.

(5) If an entity covered in Level II or Level III or Level IV opts not to avail any one or more of the exemptions or relaxations available to that Level of entities, it shall comply with the relevant requirements of the Accounting Standard.

(6) An entity covered in Level II or Level III or Level IV may opt for availing certain exemptions or relaxations from compliance with the requirements prescribed in an Accounting Standard:

Provided that such a partial exemption or relaxation and disclosure shall not be permitted to mislead any person or public.

(7) In respect of Accounting Standard (AS) 15, Employee Benefits, exemptions/ relaxations are available to Level II and Level III entities, under two sub-classifications, viz., (i) entities whose average number of persons employed during the year is 50 or more, and (ii) entities whose average number of persons employed during the year is less than 50. The requirements stated in paragraphs (1) to (6) above, mutatis mutandis, apply to these sub-classifications.

ANNEXURE 2

 Accounting Standards applicable to Non-company entities

AS Accounting Standards Level II Entities Level III Entities Level IV Entities
AS 1 Disclosure of Accounting Policies Applicable Applicable Applicable
AS 2 Valuation of Inventories Applicable Applicable Applicable
AS 3 Cash Flow Statements Not Applicable Not Applicable Not Applicable
AS 4 Contingencies and Events Occurring After the Balance Sheet Date Applicable Applicable Applicable
AS 5 Net Profit or Loss for the Period, Prior Period Items and Changes in Accounting Policies Applicable Applicable Applicable
AS 7 Construction Contracts Applicable Applicable Applicable
AS 9 Revenue Recognition Applicable Applicable Applicable
AS 10 Property, Plant and Equipment Applicable Applicable with disclosures exemption Applicable with disclosures exemption
AS 11 The Effects of Changes in Foreign Exchange Rates Applicable Applicable with disclosures exemption Applicable with disclosures exemption
AS 12 Accounting for Government Grants Applicable Applicable Applicable
AS 13 Accounting for Investments Applicable Applicable Applicable with disclosures exemption
AS 14 Accounting for Amalgamations Applicable Applicable Not Applicable
(Refer note 2(C))
AS 15 Employee Benefits Applicable with exemptions Applicable with exemptions Applicable with
exemptions
AS 16 Borrowing Costs Applicable Applicable Applicable
AS 17 Segment Reporting Not Applicable Not Applicable Not Applicable
AS 18 Related Party Disclosures Applicable Not Applicable Not Applicable
AS 19 Leases Applicable with disclosures exemption Applicable with disclosures exemption Applicable with disclosures exemption
AS 20 Earnings Per Share Not Applicable Not Applicable Not Applicable
AS 21  Consolidated Financial Statements Not Applicable
(Refer note 2(D))
Not Applicable
(Refer note 2(D))
Not Applicable
(Refer note 2(D))
AS 22 Accounting for Taxes on Income Applicable Applicable Applicable only for current
tax related provisions
(Refer note 2(B)(vi))
AS 23 Accounting for Investments in Associates in Consolidated Financial Statements Not Applicable
(Refer note 2(D))
Not Applicable
(Refer note 2(D))
Not Applicable
(Refer note 2(D))
AS 24 Discontinuing Operations Applicable Not Applicable Not Applicable
AS 25 Interim Financial Reporting Not Applicable
(Refer note 2(D))
Not Applicable
(Refer note 2(D))
Not  Applicable
(Refer note 2(D))
AS 26 Intangible Assets Applicable Applicable Applicable with disclosures exemption
AS 27 Financial Reporting of Interests in Joint Ventures Not Applicable
(Refer notes 2(C) and 2(D))
Not Applicable
(Refer notes 2(C) and 2(D))
Not Applicable
(Refer notes 2(C) and2(D))
AS 28 Impairment of Assets Applicable with disclosures exemption Applicable with disclosures exemption Not Applicable
AS 29 Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets Applicable with disclosures exemption Applicable with disclosures exemption Applicable with disclosures exemption

(B) Accounting Standards in respect of which relaxations/exemptions from certain requirements have been given to Level II, Level III and Level IV Non-company entities:

(i) Accounting Standard (AS) 10, Property, Plant and Equipments

Paragraph 87 relating to encouraged disclosures is not applicable to Level III and Level IV Non-company entities which is stated as follows:

(a) The carrying amount of temporarily idle property, plant and equipment;

(b) The gross carrying amount of any fully depreciated property, plant and

       Equipment that is still in use;

(c) For each revalued class of property, plant and equipment, the carrying

     Amount that would have been recognized had the assets been carried

      Under the cost model;

(d) The carrying amount of property, plant and equipment retired from

       Active use and not held for disposal.

 (ii) AS 11, The Effects of Changes in Foreign Exchange Rates (revised 2018)

Paragraph 44 relating to encouraged disclosures is not applicable to Level III and Level IV Non-company entities which states that Disclosure is also encouraged of an enterprise’s foreign currency risk management policy

(iii) AS 13, Accounting for Investments

Paragraph 35(f) relating to disclosures is not applicable to Level IV Non-company entities which states that other disclosures as specifically required by the relevant statute governing the enterprise.

(iv) AS 15, Employee Benefits (revised 2005)

(1) Level II and Level III Non-company entities whose average number of persons employed during the year is 50 or more are exempted from the applicability of the following paragraphs:

(a) paragraphs 11 to 16 of the standard to the extent they deal with recognition and measurement of short-term accumulating compensated absences which are non-vesting (i.e., short-term accumulating compensated absences in respect of which employees are not entitled to cash payment for unused entitlement on leaving); Short-term Compensated Absences

 (d) Recognition and measurement principles laid down in paragraphs 129 to 131 of the Standard in respect of accounting for other long-term employee benefits. However, such entities should actuarially determine and provide for the accrued liability in respect of other long-term employee benefits by using the Projected Unit Credit Method and the discount rate used should be determined by reference to market yields at the balance sheet date on government bonds as per paragraph 78 of the Standard.

(2) Level II and Level III Non-company entities whose average number of persons employed during the year is less than 50 and Level IV Non-company entities irrespective of number of employees are exempted from the applicability of the following paragraphs:

(a) paragraphs 11 to 16 of the standard to the extent they deal with recognition and measurement of short-term accumulating compensated absences which are non-vesting (i.e., short-term accumulating compensated absences in respect of which employees are not entitled to cash payment for unused entitlement on leaving);

(b) Paragraphs 46 and 139 of the Standard which deal with discounting of amounts that fall due more than 12 months after the balance sheet date;

(c) Recognition and measurement principles laid down in paragraphs 50 to 116 and presentation and disclosure requirements laid down in paragraphs 117 to 123 of the Standard in respect of accounting for defined benefit plans. However, such entities may calculate and account for the accrued liability under the defined benefit plans by reference to some other rational method, e.g., a method based on the assumption that such benefits are payable to all employees at the end of the accounting year; and (d) recognition and measurement principles laid down in paragraphs 129 to 131 of the Standard in respect of accounting for other long-term employee benefits. Such entities may calculate and account for the accrued liability under the other long-term employee benefits by reference to some other rational method, e.g., a method based on the assumption that such benefits are payable to all employees at the end of the accounting year.

(v) AS 19, Leases

(a) Paragraphs 22 (c),(e) and (f); 25 (a), (b) and (e); 37 (a) and (f); and 46 (b) and (d) relating to disclosures are not applicable to Level II Non-company entities.

(b) Paragraphs 22 (c),(e) and (f); 25 (a), (b) and (e); 37 (a), (f) and (g); and 46 (b), (d) and (e) relating to disclosures are not applicable to Level III Non-company entities.

(c) Paragraphs 22 (c),(e) and (f); 25 (a), (b) and (e); 37 (a), (f) and (g); 38; and 46 (b), (d) and (e) relating to disclosures are not applicable to Level IV Non-company entities.

Paragraph 22. The lessee should, in addition to the requirements of AS 10, Accounting for Fixed Assets, AS 6, Depreciation Accounting, and the governing statute, make the following disclosures for finance leases:

(c) A reconciliation between the total of minimum lease payments at the balance sheet date and their present value. In addition, an enterprise should disclose the total of minimum lease payments at the balance sheet date, and their present value, for each of the following periods:

(i) Not later than one year;

(ii) later than one year and not later than five years;

(iii) later than five years;

(e) The total of future minimum sublease payments expected to be received under non-cancellable subleases at the balance sheet date; and

(f) A general description of the lessee’s significant leasing arrangements including, but not limited to, the following:

(i) The basis on which contingent rent payments are determined;

(ii) The existence and terms of renewal or purchase options and

Escalation clauses; and

(iii) Restrictions imposed by lease arrangements, such as those concerning dividends, additional debt, and further leasing.

Provided that a Small and Medium Sized Company, as defined in the

Notification, may not comply with sub-paragraphs (c), (e) and (f).

Paragraph 25. The lessee should make the following disclosures for operating leases:

(a) The total of future minimum lease payments under no cancellable operating leases for each of the following periods:

(i) Not later than one year;

(ii) later than one year and not later than five years;

(iii) later than five years;

(b) The total of future minimum sublease payments expected to be received under non-cancellable subleases at the balance sheet date;

(e) A general description of the lessee’s significant leasing arrangements including, but not limited to, the following:

(i) The basis on which contingent rent payments are determined;

 (ii) The existence and terms of renewal or purchase options and escalation clauses; and

(iii) Restrictions imposed by lease arrangements, such as those concerning dividends, additional debt, and further leasing.

Provided that a Small and Medium Sized Company, as defined in the Notification, may not comply with sub-paragraphs (a), (b) and (e).

Paragraph 37. The lessor should make the following disclosures for finance leases:

 (a) A reconciliation between the total gross investment in the lease at the balance sheet date, and the present value of minimum lease payments receivable at the balance sheet date. In addition, an enterprise should disclose the total gross investment in the lease and the present value of minimum lease payments receivable at the balance sheet date, for each of the following periods:

 (i) Not later than one year;

 (ii) later than one year and not later than five years;

 (iii) later than five years;

 (f) A general description of the significant leasing arrangements of the lessor; and

 (g) Accounting policy adopted in respect of initial direct costs.

Provided that a Small and Medium Sized Company, as defined in the

Notification, may not comply with sub-paragraphs (a) and (f).

Paragraph 38. As an indicator of growth it is often useful to also disclose the gross investment less unearned income in new business added during the accounting period, after deducting the relevant amounts for cancelled leases.

Paragraph 46. The lessor should, in addition to the requirements of AS 6, Depreciation Accounting and AS 10, Accounting for Fixed Assets, and the governing statute, make the following disclosures for operating leases:

(b) The future minimum lease payments under non-cancellable operating leases in the aggregate and for each of the following periods:

(i) Not later than one year;

(ii) later than one year and not later than five years;

(iii) later than five years;

(d) A general description of the lessor’s significant leasing arrangements; and

(e) Accounting policy adopted in respect of initial direct costs.

(vi) AS 22, Accounting for Taxes on Income

(a) Level IV Non-company entities shall apply the requirements of AS 22, Accounting for Taxes on Income, for Current tax defined in paragraph 4.4 of AS 22, with recognition as per paragraph 9, measurement as per paragraph 20 of AS 22, and presentation and disclosure as per paragraphs 27-28 of AS 22.

(b) Transitional requirements

On the first occasion when a Non-company entity gets classified as Level IV entity, the accumulated deferred tax asset/liability appearing in the financial statements of immediate previous accounting period, shall be adjusted against the opening revenue reserves.

Paragraph 4.4 Current tax is the amount of income tax determined to be payable (recoverable) in respect of the taxable income (tax loss) for a period.

Paragraph 9. Tax expense for the period, comprising current tax and deferred tax, should be included in the determination of the net profit or loss for the period.

Paragraph 20. Current tax should be measured at the amount expected to be paid to (recovered from) the taxation authorities, using the applicable tax rates and tax laws.

Paragraph 27. An enterprise should offset assets and liabilities representing current tax if the enterprise: (a) has a legally enforceable right to set off the recognized amounts; and

(b) Intends to settle the asset and the liability on a net basis.

Paragraph 28. An enterprise will normally have a legally enforceable right to set off an asset and liability representing current tax when they relate to income taxes levied under the same governing taxation laws and the taxation laws permit the enterprise to make or receive a single net payment.

(vii) AS 26, Intangible Assets

Paragraphs 90(d)(iii); 90(d)(iv) and 98 relating to disclosures are not applicable to Level IV Non-company entities.

Paragraph 90. The financial statements should disclose the following for each class of intangible assets, distinguishing between internally generated intangible assets and other intangible assets:

(d) A reconciliation of the carrying amount at the beginning and end of the period showing:

(iii) Impairment losses recognized in the statement of profit and loss during the period (if any);

(iv) Impairment losses reversed in the statement of profit and loss during the period (if any);

Paragraph 98. An enterprise is encouraged, but not required, to give a description of any fully amortized intangible asset that is still in use.

(viii) AS 28, Impairment of Assets

(a) Level II and Level III Non-company entities are allowed to measure the ‘value in use’ on the basis of reasonable estimate thereof instead of computing the value in use by present value technique. Consequently, if Level II or Level III Non-company entity chooses to measure the ‘value in use’ by not using the present value technique, the relevant provisions of AS 28, such as discount rate etc., would not be applicable to such an entity. Further, such an entity need not disclose the information required by paragraph 121(g) of the Standard.

(b) Also, paragraphs 121(c)(ii); 121(d)(i); 121(d)(ii) and 123 relating to disclosures are not applicable to Level III Non-company entities.

Paragraph 121. If an impairment loss for an individual asset or a cash-generating unit is recognized or reversed during the period and is material to the financial statements of the reporting enterprise as a whole, an enterprise should disclose:

(c) For an individual asset:

(ii) The reportable segment to which the asset belongs, based on the enterprise’s primary format (as defined in AS 17, Segment Reporting);

(d) for a cash-generating unit: (i) a description of the cash-generating unit (such as whether it is a product line, a plant, a business operation, a geographical area, a reportable segment as defined in AS 17 or other);

Paragraph 123. An enterprise is encouraged to disclose key assumptions used to determine the recoverable amount of assets (cash-generating units) during the period.

(ix) AS 29, Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets (revised 2016)

Paragraphs 66 and 67 relating to disclosures are not applicable to Level II, Level III and Level IV Non-company entities.

Paragraph 66. For each class of provision, an enterprise should disclose:

 (a) The carrying amount at the beginning and end of the period;

 (b) Additional provisions made in the period, including increases to existing provisions;

 (c) Amounts used (i.e. incurred and charged against the provision) during the period; and

 (d) Unused amounts reversed during the period. Provided that a Small and Medium-sized      Company and a Small and Medium-sized Enterprise (Level II and Level III non-corperate entities), as defined in Appendix 1 to this Compendium, may not comply with paragraph 66 above.

 Paragraph 67. An enterprise should disclose the following for each class of provision:

(a) A brief description of the nature of the obligation and the expected timing of any resulting outflows of economic benefits;

(b) An indication of the uncertainties about those outflows. Where necessary to provide adequate information, an enterprise should disclose the major assumptions made concerning future events, as addressed in paragraph 41; and

(c) The amount of any expected reimbursement, stating the amount of any asset that has been recognized for that expected reimbursement. Provided that a Small and Medium-sized Company and a Small and Medium-sized Enterprise (Level II and Level III non-cooperate entities), as defined in Appendix 1 to this Compendium, may not comply with paragraph 67 above.

(C) In case of Level IV Non-company entities, generally there are no such transactions that are covered under AS 14, Accounting for Amalgamations, or jointly controlled operations or jointly controlled assets covered under AS 27, Financial Reporting of Interests in Joint Ventures. Therefore, these standards are not applicable to Level IV Non-company entities. However, if there are any such transactions, these entities shall apply the requirements of the relevant standard.

(D) AS 21, Consolidated Financial Statements, AS 23, Accounting for Investments in Associates in Consolidated Financial Statements, AS 27, Financial Reporting of Interests in Joint Ventures (to the extent of requirements relating to Consolidated Financial Statements), and AS 25, Interim Financial Reporting, do not require a Non-company entity to present consolidated financial statements and interim financial report, respectively. Relevant AS is applicable only if a Non-company entity is required or elects to prepare and present consolidated financial statements or interim financial report.

Advance Tax isn’t applicable to senior citizen with no income from business/profession

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As per section 208 every person whose estimated tax liability for the year exceeds Rs. 10,000, shall pay his tax in advance in the form of “advance tax”. Thus, any taxpayer whose estimated tax liability for the year exceeds Rs. 10,000 has to pay his tax in advance by the due dates prescribed in this regard. However, as per section 207, a resident senior citizen (i.e., an individual of the age of 60 years or above) not having any income from business or profession is not liable to pay advance tax.

In other words, if a person satisfies the following conditions, he will not be liable to pay advance tax:

  1. 1)  He is an individual
  2. 2)  He is resident in India as per the Income-tax Act
  3. 3)  He is of the age of 60 years or above at any time during the year
  4. 4)  He is not having any income chargeable to tax under the head “Profits and gains of business or profession”

For Example 1:-

Mr. Kapoor (resident and age 65 years) is a retired person, earning rental income of Rs. 40,000 per month. Apart from rental income, he does not have any other source of income. Will he be liable to pay advance tax?

Any taxpayer whose estimated tax liability for the year exceeds Rs. 10,000 has to pay his tax in advance by the due dates prescribed in this regard. However, if a person satisfies the following conditions, he will not be liable to pay advance tax:

  1. He is an individual
  2. He is resident in India as per the Income-tax Act
  3. He is of the age of 60 years or above
  4. He is not having any income chargeable to tax under the head “Profits and gains of business or profession”

In this case Mr. Kapoor is a resident as per Income-tax Law. His age is 65 years and he is not having any income chargeable to tax under the head “Profits and gains of business or profession”. Thus, he satisfies all the above conditions and, hence, he will not be liable to pay advance tax.

For Example 2:-

Mr. Sunil (resident and age 56 years) is a retired person, earning rental income of Rs. 40,000 per month. Apart from rental income he does not have any other source of income. Will he be liable to pay advance tax?

Any taxpayer whose estimated tax liability for the year exceeds Rs. 10,000 has to pay tax in advance by the due dates prescribed in this regard. However, if a person satisfies the following conditions, then he will not be liable to pay advance tax:

  1. 1)  He is an individual
  2. 2)  He is resident in India as per the Income-tax Act
  3. 3)  He is of the age of 60 years or above
  4. 4)  He is not having any income chargeable to tax under the head “Profits and gains of business or profession”

In this case Mr. Sunil is a resident as per Income-tax Law. His age is 56 years and he is not having income chargeable to tax under the head “Profits and gains of business or profession”. He satisfies all the conditions except the age criteria of 60 years and, hence, he will be liable to pay advance tax. In other words, Mr. Sunil is not a senior citizen as per the Income-tax Law and, hence, he is not exempted from payment of advance tax.

For Example 3:-

Mr. Mohan (resident and age 61 years ) is a retired person earning rental income of Rs. 40,000 per month. After retirement from his job, he started his own business of provision shop. Will he be liable to pay advance tax?

Any taxpayer whose estimated tax liability for the year exceeds Rs. 10,000 has to pay his tax in advance by the due dates prescribed in this regard. However, if a person satisfies the following conditions, then he will not be liable to pay advance tax:

  1. 1)  He is an individual,
  2. 2)  He is resident in India as per the Income-tax Act
  3. 3)  He is of the age of 60 years or above
  4. 4)  He is not having any income chargeable to tax under the head “Profits and gains of business or profession”

In this case Mr. Mohan is a resident as per Income-tax Law. His age is 61 years and he is having income chargeable to tax under the head “Profits and gains of business or profession”. He satisfies all the conditions except the business/profession income criteria. Hence, he will be liable to pay advance tax. In other words, Mr. Mohan will be liable to pay advance tax because he is having income chargeable to tax under the head “Profits and gains of business or profession”.

For Example 4:-

Mr. Raja (a non-resident and age 63 years) is a retired person, earning rental income of Rs. 40,000 per month from a property located in Delhi. He is residing in Canada. Apart from rental income, he does not have any other source of income. Will he be liable to pay advance tax in India?

Any taxpayer whose estimated tax liability for the year exceeds Rs. 10,000 has to pay his tax in advance by the due dates prescribed in this regard. However, if a person satisfies the following conditions, he will not be liable to pay advance tax:

  1. 1)  He is an individual
  2. 2)  He is resident in India as per the Income-tax Act
  3. 3)  He is of the age of 60 years or above
  4. 4)  He is not having any income chargeable to tax under the head “Profits and gains of business or profession”

The exemption from payment of advance tax is available to a resident individual who is of the age of 60 years or above and who does not have income chargeable to tax under the head “Profits and gains of business or profession”. In this case, Mr. Raja is a non- resident as per Income-tax Law, and, hence, he cannot claim the benefit of exemption from payment of advance tax. In other words, Mr. Raja will be liable to pay advance tax.

For Example 5:-

Essem Enterprises, a partnership firm, owns a property in Delhi. The property is given on rent of Rs. 40,000 per month. Apart from rental income, the firm is not having any source of income. Will the firm be liable to pay advance tax?

The exemption from payment of advance tax is available to a resident individual who is of the age of 60 years or above and who does not have income chargeable to tax under the head “Profits and gains of business or profession”. In this case, the taxpayer is a partnership firm and, hence, the exemption will not apply to it, thus, the firm will be liable to pay advance tax.

ITAT e-filing Portal to go live on 21 June 2021

ITAT has announced that e-filing portal will be launched for filing of appeal before the Income tax appellate tribunal.It has been mentioned that e-filing portal shall be live from 21.06.2021 but same shall be available in a phased manner and same shall be available for all the benches within 4 week from the initial launch.

As we know one files an appeal before Income tax appellate tribunal if the assessee it is not satisfied with the appellate order passed by the CIT(A) or order passed by CIT.

Appeal before ITAT is filed in Form 36 wherein under the physical filing one had to submit 4 copies of the appeal before the ITAT but now with e-filing we hope that this will stop and lot of paper would be saved. Thus, now you can file Form 36 online like you can file Form 35 online.

Further, as of now online hearing of appeal’s is going on in ITAT and we hope that even after pandemic it continues in the same fashion and it does become faceless as was proposed earlier.

This facility is expected to help in quick communication to assessee about their appeals, fixation for hearing, adjournments, pronouncements and disposals.

Details mentioned by the President of ITAT in his announcement about e-filing of ITAT appeal is as under:

Whilst the outbreak of COVID-19 Pandemic has posed significant challenges all over the world causing mass disruptions in all sectors, including the justice delivery systems, the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal has responded to such challenges in its own humble way, by rapidly adopting the supportive technologies that enabled continuation of functioning of Courts through the mode of Video Conferencing and, at times, exchange of documentation using web-based platforms in the pandemic period. In this way, we have transitioned from being primarily traditional face-to-face proceedings to online court proceedings also, an experiment which has been very successful and, I am happy to share that the ITAT has adapted to this new landscape quickly.

In furtherance to the spirit of the motto of the ITAT, i.e., ‘Nishpaksh Sulabh Satvar Nyay’ meaning, Impartial, Easy and Speedy justice, we, at ITAT, are pleased to announce for the benefit of all our stakeholders the launch of e-Filing Portal, which has been developed consequent upon the revision of Memoranda of Appeal and Cross objection under the Income-tax Act, 1961 and has been extensively tested by in-house as well as by pre-identified external users and, the user-acceptance has been reported of a satisfactory level. The e-Filing Portal shall be initially soft-commissioned at Delhi Zone Headquarter with effect from 21st June, 2021, and would be gradually rolled out at all other Zonal Headquarters and other subordinate Benches across the country within a period of 4 (four) weeks thereafter.

The Practice Note regarding launch of the Portal, the detailed Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) and Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs) for the guidance and understanding of the end users shall soon be available in public domain.

Click here to download the notification – https://itat.gov.in/files/uploads/categoryImage/1622804670-notice%20-%20launching%20of%20e-filing%20portal%20of%20itat.pdf

A guide to depreciation rates for AY 2021-22

Depreciation is allowed as a deduction under section 32 of the Income Tax Act, 1961. In the computation of taxable income, the depreciation rate as per income tax act will be allowed as deduction while depreciation as per book profit is added back. Depreciation rate chart for FY 2020-21 / AY 2021-22 as produced in the table below:

Depreciation Rates as per the Income Tax Act

Part A Tangible Assets:

Building depreciation rates

1Buildings used primarily for residential reasons (excluding boarding houses and hotels) 5%
2Buildings apart from those used primarily for residential reasons and not covered by sub-items 1 (above) and 3 (below) 100%
3Buildings procured on or after September 1, 2002, for installing plant and machinery forming part of water treatment system or water supply project and which is used for the purpose of the business of providing infrastructure facilities under clause (i) of subsection (4) of section 80-IA 100%
4Purely temporary erections like wooden structures 100%

Furniture and Fittings depreciation rates

1 Furniture and fittings including electrical fittings 10%

Ships depreciation rates

4(i)Ocean-going ships including tugs, survey launches, dredgers, barges, and other similar ships used primarily for dredging purposes and sighing vessels with a wooden hull
4(ii)Vessels ordinarily operating on inland waters, not covered by sub-item (iii) below20%
4(iii)Vessels ordinarily operating on inland waters being speed boats 20%

Plant and Machinery depreciation rates

1Plant and machinery excluding those covered by sub-items (2), (3), and (8) below15.00%
2Motor cars, excluding those used in a business of running them on hire, procured or put to use on or after April 1, 199015.00%
3(i)Aeroplanes, Aero Engines40.00%
3(ii)Motor taxis, motor buses and motor lorries used in a business of running them on hire30.00%
3(iii)A commercial vehicle which is procured by the assessee on or after October 1, 1998, but before April 1, 1999, and is used for any period of time prior to April 1, 1999, for the purpose of profession or business in agreement with the third proviso to clause (ii) of sub-section (1) of section 3240.00%
3(iv)New commercial vehicle procured on or after October 1, 1998, but prior to April 1, 1999, in replacement of condemned vehicle of more than 15 years of age and is used for any period of time prior to April 1, 1999, for the purpose of profession or business in agreement with the third proviso to clause (ii) of sub-section (1) of section 3260.00%
3(v)New commercial vehicle procured on or after April 1, 1999, but before April 1, 2000, in replacement of condemned vehicle of more than 15 years of age and is put to use prior to April 1, 2000, for the purposes of profession or business in agreement with the second proviso to clause (ii) of sub-section (1) of section 3260.00%
3(vi)New commercial vehicle procured on or after April 1, 2001, but before April 1, 2002, and is put to use before April 1, 2002, for the purpose of profession or business50.00%
3(vii)Molds used in plastic and rubber goods factories30.00%
3(viii)Air pollution control equipmentFeltfilter systemElectrostatic precipitation systemsScrubbercounter current / packedbed / venture / cyclonic scrubbersDust collector systemsEvacuation system and ash handling system100.00%
3(ix)Water pollution control equipmentAerated detritus chambers (including air compressor)Mechanical screen systemsMechanically skimmed grease and oil removal systemsFlash mixing equipment and chemical feed systemsMechanical reactors and mechanical flocculatorsMechanically aerated activated sludge / diffused air systemsBiofiltersAerated lagoon systemsAir floatation systemsMethanerecovery anaerobic digester systemsSteam/air stripping systemsMarine outfall systemsUrea Hydrolysis systemsActivated carbon columnBiodisc or rotating biological contractorMarine outfall systemsIon exchange resin columnCentrifuge for dewatering sludge30.00%
3(x)(a) Solid waste, control equipment Cryolite / mineral / lime / caustic / chrome recovery system (b) Resource recovery and solid waste recycling systems100.00%
3(xi)Plant and machinery used in semi-conductor industry covering all integrated circuits (ICs) (not including hybrid integrated circuits) ranging from small scale integration (SSI) to large scale integration / very large scale integration (LSI/VLSI) as also discrete semiconductor devices like diodes, triacs, thyristors, transistors, etc., except those covered by entries (viii), (ix), (x) of this sub-item and sub-item (8) below30.00%
3(xi)aLife Saving medical equipmentD.C Defibrillators for pacemakers and internal useColour DopplerHaemodialysisCobalt therapy unitVascular Angiography System including Digital subtraction AngiographyHeart lung machineSpect Gamma CameraMagnetic Resonance Imaging SystemVentilator used with anaesthesia apparatusVentilator except those used with anaesthesiaSurgical laserGamma knifeFibreoptic endoscopes including audit resectoscope/paediatric resectoscope, arthoscope, peritoneoscopes, fibreoptic flexible nasal pharyngo, microaryngoscope, video laryngo, fiberoptic flexible laryngo bronchoscope.Bronchoscope, video oescophago gastroscope, video oescopghago bronchoscope, fibreoptic flexible oesophago gastroscope40.00%
4Containers made of plastic or glass used as refills50.00%
5Computers including computer software60.00%
6Plant and machinery, used in processing, weaving and garment sector of textile industry, which is bought under TUFS on or after April 1, 2001, but prior to April 1, 2004, and is put to use prior to April 1, 200450.00%
7Plant and machinery procured and installed on or after September 1, 2002, in a water treatment system or a water supply project and put to use for the purpose of the business of providing infrastructure facility under clause (i) of sub-section (4) of section 80-IA100.00%
81. Wooden parts used in artificial silk manufacturing machinery100.00%
2. Match factories, wooden match frames
3. Cinematograph films, bulbs of studio lights100.00%
4. Saltworks, condensers, reservoirs, salt pans, etc., made of clayey, sandy, or earthy material, or any other similar material100.00%
5. Quarries and mines100.00%
Sand stowing pipes, winding ropes, tubs, and haulage ropes
Safety lamps
6. Flour mills, rollers
7. Sugar works, rollers80.00%
8. Steel and iron industry, rolling mill rolls80.00%
9. Energy saving devices80.00%
(A) Furnaces and specialised boilers
(i) Fluidized bed boilers / ignifluid80.00%
(ii) Continuous pusher type furnaces and flameless furnaces
(iii) High efficiency boilers
(iv) Fluidized bed type heat treatment
(B) Instrumentation and monitoring system for monitoring energy flows80.00%
(i) Digital heat loss meters
(ii) Automatic electrical load monitoring systems
(iii) Infrared thermography
(iv) Microprocessor based control systems
(v) Meters for measuring heat losses, steam flow, furnace oil flow, power factor and electric energy meters
(vi) Exhaust gas analysers
(vii) Maximum demand indicator and clamp on power meters
(viii) Fuel oil pump test bench
(C) Waste heat recovery equipment80.00%
(i) Air pre-heaters and recuperators
(ii) Feed water heaters and economisers
(iii) Thermal energy wheel for low and high temperature heat recovery
(iv) Heat pumps
(D) Co-generation systems80.00%
(i) Controlled extraction, back pressure pass out, extraction cum condensing turbines for cogeneration along with pressure boilers
(ii) Organic rankine cycle power systems
(iii) Vapour absorption refrigeration systems
(iv) Low inlet pressure small steam turbines
(E) Electrical equipment80.00%
(i) Synchronous condenser systems and shunt capacitors
(ii) Relays (automatic power cut off devices)
(iii) Power factor controller for AC motors
(iv) Automatic voltage controller
(v) Solid state devices for controlling motor speeds
(vi) FACT (Flexible AC Transmission) devices, Thyristor controlled series compensation equipment
(vii) Thermally energy-efficient stenters
(viii) Series compensation equipment
(ix) TOD (Time of Day) energy meters
(x) Intelligent electronic devices/remote terminal units, computer software/hardware, bridges/router, other required equipment and associated communication systems for data acquisition systems and supervisory control, distribution management systems and energy management systems for power transmission systems
(xi) Special energy meters for ABT (Availability Based Tariff)
(F) Burners80.00%
(i) Zero to ten per cent excess air burners
(ii) Burners using air with high preheat temperature (above 300 degrees Celsius)
(iii) Emulsion burners
(G) Other equipment80.00%
(i) Mechanical vapour recompressors
(ii) Wet air oxidation equipment for recovery of heat and chemicals
(iii) Automatic microprocessor based load demand controllers
(iv) Thin film evaporators
(v) Fluid couplings and fluid drives
(vi) Coal based producer gas plants
(vii) Super-charges/turbo charges
(viii) Sealed radiation sources for radiation processing plants
10. Gas cylinders including regulators and valves60.00%
11. Glass manufacturing concerns, Direct fire glass melting furnaces60.00%
12. Mineral oil concerns60.00%
(i) Plant used in field operations (above ground) distribution, returnable packages
(ii) Plant used in field operations (below ground), but not including kerbside pumps including fittings and tanks used in field operations (distribution) by mineral oil concerns
13. Renewable energy devices60.00%
(i) Pipe type and concentrating solar collectors
(ii) Flat plate solar collectors
(iii) Solar cookers
(iv) Air/fluid/gas heating systems
(v) Solar water heaters and systems
(vi) Solar crop drivers and systems
(vii) Solar steels and desalination systems
(viii) Solar refrigeration, air conditioning systems and cold storages
(ix) Solar pumps based on solar-photovoltaic and solar-thermal conversion
(x) Solar power generating systems
(xi) Solar-photovoltaic panels and modules for water pumping and other applications
14. Wind mills and any other specially designed devices that operate on wind mills (installed on or after April 1, 2014)80.00%
15. Any special devices including electric pumps and generators operating on wind energy (installed on or after April 1, 2014)80.00%
16. Books owned by assessees carrying on a profession
(i) Books, being annual publications100.00%
(ii) Books, excluding those covered by entry (i) above60.00%
(iii) Books owned by assessees carrying on business in running lending libraries100.00%

Part B Intangible Assets:

Patents, know-how, trademarks, franchises, copyrights, licenses, or any other commercial or business right of similar nature25%

Do check various depreciation rates before charging it to your assets!

Did you know the CBDT has extended various due dates to provide relief to taxpayers in view of COVID – 19, get the full coverage here.

Is Stock Broking Company is a Financial Service Provider Under IBC? | NCLAT to Examine

The National Company Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT), New Delhi has recently agreed to examine a serious question of law i.e. whether a stock broking company should be considered as a Financial Service Provider under Section 3(16) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 and should be kept out of the purview of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (“IBC”)?

The development came while the NCLAT stayed the Committee of Creditor’s formation of Corporate Debtor i.e. Simandhar Broking Ltd. if not constituted yet, till the next date of hearing, in an appeal filed by its Suspended Director under sec. 61 of the IBC challenging the order of NCLT, Ahmadabad Bench.

A petition under Section 7 of the IBC was filed in NCLT, Ahmedabad by the client of the Stock Broker, against his trading of shares in the Futures & Options Segment of the NSE (National Stock Exchange).

It was thus, the case of the Appellant that NCLT, Ahmedabad had taken a “contrary view” to the earlier decided judgments rendered by the NCLAT and other benches of the NCLT.

In appeal, the Suspended Director had submitted that the Corporate Debtor is a Financial Service Provider, therefore, given Section 3 (7) of the IBC and given this, it does not come within the definition of Corporate Person and the alleged debt is not Financial Debt within the meaning of Section 5 (8) of the IBC.

Counsel appearing on behalf of the Appellant had placed reliance on NCLT, Hyderabad Bench judgment passed in the matter Praveen Kumar Mundra v. CIL Securities Ltd wherein it was held that the Stoking Broking Company is a financial service provider as it is regulated by SEBI, it deals with financial products i.e. securities and imparts financial services under Section 3(16) of the IBC.

Hence, it should not be considered as the Corporate Person as stated under Section 3(7) of the IBC. Thus, the insolvency proceedings of a stock broking company are not covered under the purview of IBC.

It was also submitted that Respondent No. 1 (Financial Creditor) has suppressed the vital fact that the investor grievance resolution panel of NSE has rejected his claim and the admissible claim of the Financial Creditors is NIL. While issuing notice to the Respondents, the bench headed by the grant of two weeks to file their reply in the matter.

“The Respondent No. 1 seeks and is granted two weeks to file Reply Affidavit. Rejoinder, if any, may be filed one week thereafter. It is ordered that if the CoC has not been constituted it be put on hold till next date of hearing.” the bench ordered.

For more updates on the verdict, do follow the ITAT Orders blog.

Draft Model Tenancy Act – 2020: A major step to streamline the property renting process in India.

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After releasing the draft in 2019, the Union Cabinet on 2nd June 2021 approved the Model Tenancy Act (MTA) to streamline the process of renting a property in India and aid the rent economy in the estate sector

Why was the Model Tenancy Act needed?

As per Census 2011 around 110 lakh houses were lying vacant in urban areas and one of the main reasons for the non-availability of these houses for rental purposes is the existing rental laws of the States/UTs, which discourage renting.

There is a segment of the population especially migrants, who prefer rented accommodation as it offers affordability and flexibility with low entry and exit cost with the option to live near their ‘place of work’. The share of the urban population has increased to 31.16% in 2011 as compared to 27.82% in 2001 and further urban population is projected to be >50% by 2050.

A significant portion of this increase can be attributed to the migration to urban areas for various purposes such as education, employment, business, healthcare, and better quality of life. People also migrate from one area of the city to another area.

Considering the above situation and for the benefit of citizens, The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) has prepared a Draft Model Tenancy Act, 2020 intending to balance the interests and rights of both the landlord and tenant; and to create an accountable and transparent ecosystem for renting the premises in a disciplined and efficient manner.

Further, States can adopt the Act as it is with fresh legislation, since it is a state subject, or they can amend their existing rent acts to factor in the new MTA.

States and Union Territories have MoUs with the Centre under the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Urban which has this provision.

This article provides a brief description of the Model Tenancy Act,2020

Major Objectives of Model Tenancy Act, 2020:

  • It will enable the creation of adequate rental housing stock for various income segments of society including migrants, formal and informal sector workers, professionals, students, etc.; increase access to quality rented accommodation, and enable gradual formalization of the rental housing market.
  • It will help overhaul the legal framework concerning rental housing across the country. It is expected to give a fillip to private participation in the rental housing sector thereby addressing the huge housing shortage.
  • MTA will enable the unlocking of vacant premises for rental purposes and create a vibrant, sustainable, and inclusive rental market.
  • MTA will promote the growth of the rental market thereby attracting investment and promote entrepreneurial opportunities in the rental housing sector.

Most Important Features of Model Tenancy Act, 2020

  • After commencement of MTA, no premises to be rented except by an agreement in writing on mutually agreed terms;
  • MTA to be applicable to residential and commercial tenancies;
  • MTA to be applicable to the whole of the State/UT i.e. urban and rural areas;
  • Rent to be fixed by mutual agreement between the landlord (lessor) and tenant (lessee);
  • MTA to be applied prospectively and the existing tenancies shall continue to be governed by the respective extant rental laws of the States/UTs;
  • MTA to provide for a fast-track quasi-judicial mechanism for adjudication of disputes;
  • MTA to be applicable to all tenancies with no monetary threshold;
  • The terms of the agreement shall be binding upon successors of the landlord as well as a tenant for the remaining period of the tenancy agreement.
  • Sub-letting is not permitted without the execution of a supplementary agreement between landlord and tenant.
  • If the term of the tenancy ends at the time when locality (where rented premises is situated) experiences any force majeure event, the landlord shall allow the tenant to continue possession of premises for one month from the cessation of such force majeure event on the same terms of the prevailing tenancy agreement.
  • Security deposit for residential premises shall not exceed two months’ rent and in case of non-residential premises, it shall be as per the terms of tenancy agreement subject to a maximum of six months’ rent. The security deposit shall be refunded by the landlord at the time of taking over vacant possession of the premises, after making due deductions, if any. Recovery of possession of premises by the Landlord on certain grounds.
  • The landlord is entitled to double the monthly rent for the first two months and thereafter, four times the monthly rent in case of default by the tenant to vacate the premises after termination of tenancy.

It is expected by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs that State tenancy laws based on the draft Model Tenancy Act will be beneficial for both landlords and tenants, thus providing a win-win situation.

The provisions of MTA emphasize the supremacy of rent agreement, executed between the parties on mutually agreed terms, which will minimize the possibility of disputes, and in case of any dispute, same shall be resolved quickly through the speedy dispute redressal mechanism prescribed in the proposed legislation.

And because people at large do not enter into written agreements or that landlord-tenant disputes which are quite common often lead to lengthy litigation, the guidelines proposed by the MTA would help in ensuring the speedy redressal of tenancy disputes and transparency in the system.

The draft Model Tenancy Act can be accessed at MoHUA’s official Website.

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